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The pass@k estimator

ProofIntermediate⏱ 30 minAgentspass@kunbiasednumerics

Problem

  1. Prove pass@k^=1−(n−ck)/(nk)\widehat{\mathrm{pass}@k} = 1 - \binom{n-c}{k}/\binom{n}{k} is the exact probability that a uniform random kk-subset of the nn samples contains a correct one.
  2. Derive the product form and explain why it is preferred numerically.
  3. Show that estimating pass@k by drawing exactly kk samples once is unbiased but has strictly larger variance, and quantify the gap for n=100n=100, k=1k=1, c=20c=20.

Write a complete argument. Every inequality you use should be one you could state precisely.

Solution

Opening this before you have a real attempt on paper is the fastest way to feel like you understand something you cannot reproduce.

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